UGC NET Paper 1 PYQS – Unify Study

UGC NET Paper1 5th Dec 2019 Morning Shift

Mouni — Mon, 07 Sep 2020 14:41:20 +0000

Q.1

The table below embodies data on the number of students admitted in three different colleges (A, B and C) during six different years from 2014 to 2019. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the questions 1-5 :

Year – Wise Number of Admitted students in different colleges :

College/year	A	B	C
2014	8000	14000	11000
2015	15000	17000	13000
2016	17000	23000	19000
2017	13000	27000	23000
2018	22000	26000	24000
2019	27000	18000	16000

In which college was the number of students admitted in the year 2016 second lowest and the number of students admitted in the year 2018 minimum respectively?

(1) College C and College B (2) College B and College A

(3) College C and College A (4) College A and College B

Answer : option 3

Q.2

What is the approximate percent (%0) Increase in the number of students admitted in college A in the year 2016 as compared to previous year?

(1) 23 % (2) 123%

(3) 115 % (4) 13%

Answer : option 4

Q.3

What is the difference between the total number of students admitted in college A overall the years together and the total number of students admitted in college C in the year 2018 and 2019 together?

(1) 6400 (2) 62000

(3) 64000 (4) 61000

Answer : option 2

Q.4

Total number of students admitted in college Cover all the years was approximately what percent (%) of total number of students admitted in all the three colleges together in the year 2017?

(1) 168% (2) 162%

(3) 158% (4) 175%

Answer : option 1

Q. 5

What is the average number of students admitted in college A in the year 2015, in college B in the year 2016. and in college C in the year 2019 together?

(1) 18000 (2) 24000

(3) 17000 (4) 28000

Answer : option 1

Q.6

Which of the following numbers would occur next in the series

2. 6, 30, 60, 130, 210 ?

(1) 330 (2) 350

(3) 310 (4) 378

Answer : option 2

Q.7

The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at the rate of 10% per annum is Rs.993.00. The simple interest on the same sum at the rate of 8% per annum for 4 years would be equal to which of the following?

(1) Rs. 900.00 (2) Rs. 930.00

(3) Rs. 960.00 (4) Rs. 990.00

Answer : option 3

Q.8

Pointing towards a man, a woman said, “His wife’s father is the husband of my mother’s only daughter”. How is the woman related to the man?

(1) Daughter (2) Sister – in – law

(3) Sister (4) Mother – in – law

Answer : option 4

Q.9

If the word TEACHER is coded as TCJACCYV and the word SURGEON is coded as PMGETSU in a certain code language, then which of the following will represent the word CONCORD in that language?

(1) FTQEPQE (2) EQPEQTF

(3) FPQAPME (4) EMPAQPF

Answer : option 3

Q.10

A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The diameter of the cylinder is 1/3 of its height (excluding the hemispherical ends). The total length of the solid including the hemispherical ends is 56 cm. What is the surface area of the solid?

(1) 3080 cm? (2) 2464 cm?

(3) 2772 cm? (4) 2156 cm?

Answer : option

Q.11

Identify the communication which is valid as documentary evidence from the following :

(1) Written Communication (2) Verbal Communication

(3) Gestural Communication (4) Non – verbal Communication

Answer : option 1

Q.12

Which of the following groups of electronic scientists has been given in an order chronologically?

(1) Guglielmo (G.) Marconi, Lumiere Brothers, Lee forest, John Fleming and John Logie Baird

(2) John Logie Baird, Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi, Lee forest and John Fleming

(3) Lee forest, John Fleming, Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi and John Logie Baird

(4) Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi, Lee forest, John Fleming and John Logie Baird

Answer : option 4

Q.13

Who among the following, first took the initiative for appointing a University Education Commission during pre-independence period?

(1) Lord Curzon (2) Lord Ripon

(3) Lord Wellesley (4) Lord Bentick

Answer : option 1

Q.14

Which one of the following groups of commission on education has been given chronologically in an order of year in which they were constituted?

(1) Kothari Commission, Mudaliar Commission, Radhakrishnan Commission

(2) Radhakrishnan Commission, Mudaliar Commission, Kothari Commission

(3) Mudaliar Commission, Kothari Commission, Radhakrishnan Commission

(4) Radhakrishnan Commission, Kothari Commission, Mudaliar Commission

Answer : option 2

Q.15

Which one of the following is signified by the term ‘hetu’ in the process of anumana (inference) in classical Indian School of Logic?

(1) Example Provided (2) Statement of reason

(8) Proposition to be proved (4) Conclusion Proved

Answer : option 2

Q.16

Assumption of an unperceived fact in order to reconcile two apparently inconsistent perceived facts is known in Indian Logic as :

(1) Anumdana (Inference) (2) Upamana (Comparison)

(3) Arthapatti (Implication) (4) Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)

Answer : option 3

Q.17

Which one of the following combination of propositions is considered to be contraries in the classical square of opposition?

(1) Universal affirmative and universal negative

(2) Universal affirmative and particular affirmative

(3) Particular affirmative and universal negative

(4) Particular affirmative and particular negative

Answer : option 1

Q.18

Which one of the following is not a part of immediate deductive inference?

(1) Conversion (2) Obversion

(3) Syllogism (4) Contraposition

Answer : option 3

Q.19

Which one of the following factors does not contribute to learning mathematical concepts

(1) Real life events

(2) Assessing the existing mathematical knowledge of the learner before deciding the syllabi

(3) Teaching mathematics and history together

(4) Narrating the life experiences of the mathematician who has given the concept

Answer : option 3

Q.20

Which among the following is NOT an alternative to traditional assessments?

(1) Multiple Choice Questions (2) Performance Test

(3) Portfolios (4) Exhibitions

Answer : option 1

Q.21

A college teacher conducts a quiz session with a view to accelerate the tempo of motivational participation. This will form part of which type of evaluation?

(1) Summative evaluation (2) Criterion based evaluation

(3) Formative evaluation (4) Diagnostic evaluation

Answer : option 3

Q.22

Which among the following is NOT the principle associated with Positivism?

(1) Phenomenalism (2) deductivism

(3) Inductivism (4) Interpretivism

Answer : option 4

Q.23

In grounded theory, researchers collect data using theoretical sampling until theoretical saturation is achieved. This process can be summarized in the following sequence.

(1) Sample theoretically decided — Collect data — Analyze data — Theoretical Saturation

(2) General research question + Collect data > Sample theoretically decided > Analyze data + Theoretical Saturation

(3) Sample theoretically decided — General research question — Collect data >Theoretical Saturation

(4) General research question —» Sample theoretically decided —» Collect data >Analyze data > Theoretical Saturation

Answer : option 4

Q. 24

Identify the ways that would be followed by a public sector organization to communicate with public by organizing an open house :

(a) Publicity

(b) Lobbying

(d) Image building

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer : option 1

Q.25

Choose the institutions which are not authorized to confer degree according to UGC Act 1956:

(a) Institutions established under linguistic minority

(b) Deemed to be Universities

(d) Affiliated Colleges

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer : option 4

Q.26

Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of ‘Digital India’ Initiative of Government of India?

(a) National Digital Library of India (NDL India) is a 24 x 7 online store house of all academic awards duly digitized and lodged by academic institutions.

(b) National Academic Depository (NAD) is an all — digital library that stores information (metadata) about different types of digital contents relevant to the citizens.

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a) only (2) (b) only

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : option 4

Q.27

(a) WWW is a network of networks that first started with four computer nodes.

(b) WWW is a service that runs on the Internet.

Choose the correct option:

(1) (a) only (2) (b) only

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : option 2

Q.28

Academic performance of students is determined by :

(a) Intelligence

(b) Motivation

(d) Gender

(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only

Answer : option 1

Q. 29

Spread of forest fires is influenced by

(a) Slope

(b) Soil Moisture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer : option 4

Q.30

Given below is question (Q) followed by three statements. Identify the statements (a. b. c) that are necessary to answer the question.

Question : What is the average age of 30 students studying In a class?

(a) Boys and girls in the class are in the ratio 7:8

(b) The average age of boys and girls is 12.2 years and 11.4 years. respectively.

Choose the correct option from those given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) and either (a) or (c)

Answer : option 4

Q.31

Consider the following statements with reference to categorical propositions :

(a) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes subject term alone.

(b) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes predicate term alone.

(c) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes both subject and predicate terms.

(d) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes neither subject term nor predicate term.

Choose the correct option from below :

(1) Only (a) and (d) are correct

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct

(3) Only (b) is correct

(4) Only (d) is correct

Answer : option 4

Q.32

Consider the following statements with reference to categorical propositions :

(a) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes subject term alone.

(b) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes predicate term alone.

(c) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes both subject and predicate terms.

(d) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes neither subject term nor predicate term.

Choose the correct option from below :

(1) Only (a) and (d) are correct

(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct

(3) Only (b) is correct

(4) Only (d) is correct

Answer : option 4

Q.33

Which two among the following factors are responsible for transgression of ethical principle in research?

(a) Harm to the participants

(b) Lack of informed consent

(d) Asking difficult questions

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only

Answer : option 4

Q.34

Which of the following activities are performed by the researcher in an ethnographic research?

(a) Conducts structured interview with the members of the community

(b) Gets immersed in a social setting for an extended period of time

(d) Tries to educate people about the harms of some evil practices

Choose the correct answer :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (d) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer : option 4

Q.35

Match correctly the items of column I with the items of column II

Column-I	Column-II
Dyslexia	Difficulty in doing mathematics
Dysgraphia	Difficulty in reading
Dyscalculia	Difficulty in writing
ADHD	Difficulty in concentrating

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer : option 2

Q. 36

Match the following communication channels with their distinguishing type

(Communication Channel)	(Distinguishing Type)
(a) Blogging	(i)Electronic Media
(b) Television	(ii)Print Media
(c) Periodicals	(iii)Social Media
(d) Collection sites	(iv)World wide web

Choose the correct option from those given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i),(d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer : option 4

Q.37

Match the following classes of chemicals with their descriptions :

(Chemical Class)	(Description)
(a) Allergens	(i) Chemicals that alter or damage the genetic material (DNA) cells
(b) Mutagens	(ii) Substances that activate the immune system
(c) Carcinogens	(iii) Chemicals that specifically cause abnormalities during embryonic growth and development.
(d) Teratogens	(iv) Substances that cause invasive out of control cell growth resulting in malignant tumors.

Choose the most appropriate option from those given below –

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(4) (a)- (iii), (b)-(i). (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer : option 3

Q. 38

Match List —I with List — II

List-I	List-II
(a) 50 in decimal	(i) 0110010 in binary
(b) 102 in decimal	(ii) 1100110 in binary
(c) Real— Time video conferencing	(iii) Synchronous
(d) SMS texting	(iv) Asynchronous communication

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer : option 3

Q.39

Match correctly the contribution / concept of Column II with the names of the thinkers given in Column I

Column I	Column II
(a) Karl Popper	Inductive method
(b) T.S. Kuhn	Against the method
(c) Paul Feyerabend	Paradigm
(d) Francis Bacon	Falsification

Select appropriate option:

(1) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (e)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iv). (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii). (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer : option 3

Q.40

Match the following types of communication with their distinguishing examples

(Types of Communication)	( Distinguishing Example)
(a) Formal Communication	(i) Government agencies
(b) Informal Communication	(ii) Circular
(c) Outward Communication	(iii) Memos
(d) Inward Communication	(iv) Group chain

Choose the correct option from those given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer : option 1

Q.41

Select the option that contains only optical storage media

(1) USB memory stick, Blu — Ray disk, CD – ROM, DVD

(2) DVD, CD — ROM, USB memory stick, CD – RW

(3) Hard disk, USB memory stick, CD -ROM, DVD

(4) DVD, CD —R, Blu — Ray Disk, CD — RW

Answer : option 4

Q. 42

Noise levels at. a traffic site are recorded for one hour at a sampling interval of 1 second and percentile indices of noise L₁, L₁₀, L₅₀, L₉₀ are computed from the data. The indices are then arranged in increasing order in terms of their values starting from minimum to maximum.

Which of the following options represents their correct order?

(1) L₁, L₁₀, L₅₀, L₉₀

(2) L₁₀, L₅₀, L_90, L₁

(3) L₅₀ ,L₉₀, L₁₀, L₁

(4) L₉₀ ,L₅₀, L₁₀, L₁

Answer : option 4

Q.43

Given below are two statements — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In the afternoon of a hot sunny day during the summer season, the tropospheric ozone levels in a city like Delhi are expected to be lower as compared to morning and evening.

Reasons (R) : In the afternoon period, atmosphere is unstable and its dilution potential is higher as compared to mornings and evenings.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer : option 4

Q. 44

Given below are two statements — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Information Technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India.

Reasons (R): Software is one of the major exports of India and further India has a very strong base in hardware.

In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true. but (R) 1s false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 3

Q.45

Given below are two statements — one 1s labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Governor has the power to ask for any information from the Chief Minister regarding the administration of the State.

Reasons (R) : The Governor is the real Head of the State administration.

In the context of the above two statements, choose the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true , but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 3

Q.46

Read the following passage and answer questions which follow.

I do not wish to suggest that the humanistic elements in education are less important than the utilitarian elements. To know something of great literature. something of world history something of music and painting and architecture. Is essential if the life of imagination is to be fully developed. And it is only through imagination that men become aware of what the world might be: without it. ‘progress’ would become mechanical and trivial. But science. Also can stimulate the imagination. Psychology was until fairly lately. a merely academic study, with very little application to practical affairs. This is all changed now. We have. for instance. industrial psychology. clinical psychology. educational psychology: all of which are of the great practical importance. We may hope and expect that the influence of psychology upon our institutions will rapidly increase in the near future. In education. at any rate. its effect has already been create and beneficent.

As per the passage, people become aware of “What the world might be?” only through

(1) Literature (2) History

(3) Imagination (4) Music

Answer : option 3

Q.47

As per the passage, without imagination the ‘progress’ would become

(1) Humanistic (2) Mechanical

(3) Creative (4) Realistic

Answer : option 2

Q.48

According to the passage psychology until recently was of very little

(1) Academic orientation. (2) Application in academics

(3) Application to practical affairs (4) Application to imagination

Answer : option 3

Q.49

In the passage, the author is optimistic about

(1) The utilitarian elements in education

(2) Decrease in the role of imagination in education

(3) The role of psychology in laboratories

(4) Increase in the influence of psychology upon institutions.

Answer : option 4

Q.50

As per the passage, if the life of imagination is to be fully developed, some exposure to the following is required :

(a) Literature (b) World history

Choose the correct options from these given below :

(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (c)

(3) Only (a), (b) and (d) (4) Only (a), (b) and (c)

Answer : option 4

For Explanation check these videos given below:

UGC NET Paper 1 2nd Dec 2019 Evening Shift

Mouni — Tue, 01 Sep 2020 17:58:37 +0000

Q.1

In the two sets given below. Set I provides levels of teaching while Set II gives their focus of concern:

Set-I	Set-II
(Levels of Teaching)	(Focus of concern)
(a) Autonomous development level	(i) Problem raising and problem solving
(b) Memory level	(ii) Affects and feelings
(c) Understanding level	(iii)Recall of facts and information
(d) Reﬂective level	(iv) Seeing of relationship among facts and their examples
	(v) Peer Learning

Select correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(v)

(2) (a)-(i). (b)-(iv). (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)

(4) (a)-(v). (b)-(iv). (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)

Answer: option 3

Q.2

In the context of classroom teaching .The foundation on which a warm and nurturing relationship with learners can be built is called :

(1) Probing (2) Teacher Affect

(3) Structuring (4) Feedback

Answer : option 2

Q. 3

From the list of learning outcomes indicated below. identify those which are said to be high level outcomes :

(a)Learning of facts and rules
(b) Showing the ability to analyse and synthesize
(c) awareness. responding and valuing
(d) Imitation, manipulation and precision
(e) Articulation and naturalization
(f) Organization and characterization

Select correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b). (e) and (f) (2) (a). (b) and (c)

(3) (b). (c) and (d) (4) (a). (c) and (f)

Answer : option 1

Q. 4

Which one of the following sequences correctly reﬂects the evolution of educational technology support in higher education?

(1) Programmed learning material, text book support, online and modular material

(2) Text book supplementation, programmed learning material, modular material and online methods

(3) Modular material, programmed learning, online and text book supplementation

(4) Online methods, modular material, text-book supplementation and programmed learning material

Answer : option 2

Q.5 Match the two sets given below in which Set I mentions levels of measurement and Set II their properties :

Set-I	Set-II
(Levels of measurement)	(Properties)
(a) Nominal	(i) Classification. order. equal units and absolute zero
(b) Ordinal	(ii) Classification. order and equal units
(c) Interval	(iii) Classification
(d) Ratio	(iv) Classification and order

Select correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

Answer : option 4

Q.6

Identify the tests from the list given below. which are maximum performance tests in the

context of research :

(a) Personality tests

(b) Projective personality tests

(d) Attitude tests

(e) Intelligence tests

(f) Aptitude tests

Choose correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a). (b) and (c)

(2) (b). (c) and (e)

(3) (c). (e) and (f)

(4) (c)- (d) and (f)

Answer : option 3

Q.7

Which of the following research is cyclic in nature?

(1) Fundamental research

(2) Applied research

(I3) Action research

(4) Evaluative research

Answer : option 3

Q.8 In which of the following sampling methods employed in research. the units comprising the sample are given equal and independent chance?

(1) Stage sampling

(2) Cluster sampling

(3) Dimensional sampling

(4) Snowball sampling

Answer : option 2

Q.9

The issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of research

(a) Problem selection

(b) Hypothesis formulation

(d) Data analysis and interpretation

(e) Defining of research population

Select correct answer from the following options :

(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (e) (4) (c) and (e)

Q.9

The issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of research

(a) Problem selection

(b) Hypothesis formulation

(d) Data analysis and interpretation

(e) Defining of research population

Select correct answer from the following options :

(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (e) (4) (c) and (e)

Answer : option 2

Q. 10 In which type of qualitative research designs. individual stories to describe the lives of people are explored?

(1) Ethnography

(2) Grounded theory research

(3) Symbolic interaction

(4) Narrative research

Answer : option 4

Q.11

Mini-summaries at the end of each class is called

(1) Verbal break-up

(2) Clichéd conclusion

(3) Verbal signposting

(4) Staggered conclusion

Answer : option 3

Q.12

Micro expressions. as part of classroom communication. Are

(1) negative

(2) positive

(3) manipulative

(4) ﬂeeting

Answer : option 4

Q.13

Which of the following are essential for good classroom communication?

(a) Over-emphasis on certain words

(b) Use of gobbledygook

(0) Proper employment of redundancy

(d) Immediacy of feedback

(e) non-verbal cues

(f) Sidelining student criticism

Choose the correct option from the following :

(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (f)

(3) (c). (d) and (e) (4) (d). (e) and (f)

Answer : option 3

Q.14 Pitch of the teacher’s voice in the classroom is described as

(1) linguistic

(2) paralinguistic

(3) non – linguistic

(4) marco- linguistic

Answer : option 2

Q.15

Question Number 15 Question Id : 6154751298

Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : If a teacher wants to improve his or her abilities as an effective classroom communicator. he or she should first understand the students.

Reasons (R) : The ability to understand students and intended listening are disjointed propositions.

In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option from the following :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 3

Q.16

What is the missing term in the series given below?

2. 4. 6. 12. 10. 36. 14. ?. 18. 324. ……

(1) 50 (2) 72

(3) 108 (4) 18

Answer : option 3

Q.17

Apoorav is son of Madhu. Vinod is brother of Madhus husband. How is Apoorav related to Vinod‘?

(1) Uncle

(2) Brother

(3) nephew

(4) Cousin

Answer : option 3

Q.18 In a certain code “ENGLAND” is written as “ULSNYLV”. Using the same code. “IRELAND will be Written as

(1) HQUNYLV

(2) QHUNYLV

(3) QUHNYLV

(4) HUQNYLV

Answer : option 2

Q.19

The ratio of two numbers a and b is 33 : T. After adding 9 to each number. the ratio becomes 9 : 17. The numbers a and b are :

(1) (6.14) (2) (9. 21)

(3) (5. 35) (4) (18. 42)

Answer : option 4

Q.20

The next term in the series AT, EQ , IN , OK…….. is

(1) UH

(2) UP

(3) US

(4) UU

Answer : option 1

Q.21

“Everyone is going to the party. You should go too.” This inference commits which kind of fallacy?

(1) Ad Populum (2) Equivocation

(3) Ad Verecundiam (4) Ad Ignorantiam

Answer : option 1

Q.22

All students cleared their examination” and “Few students did not clear their examination”. This is an instance of ii.

(1) Contradictories (2) Superaltar

(3) Subaltern (4) Contraries

Answer : option 1

Q.23

Product of two consecutive integers is divisible by 2. Therefore 4 X 5 (=20) is divisible by 2

This is an example of which type of Reasoning?

( 1) Abductive (2) Informal

(3) Inductive (4) Deductive

Answer :option 4

Q. 24

The distinction between laukika and alaukika is made with reference to which one of the following pramﬁnas ‘?

(1) Anumana (Inference)

(2) Upamana (Comparison)

(3) Pratyaksa (Perception)

(4) S’abda (Verbal testimony)

Answer : option 3

Q.25

‘Some students are sincere is an example of which preposition?

(1) Universal Affirmative (2) Universal Negation

(3) Particular Affirmative (4) Particular Negation

Answer : option 3

Q.26

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by five students in five subjects

Maximum marks in each subject are given in the parenthesis below the subject name.

Percentage (%) marks obtained
Student	Maths (100)	Chemistry (150)	Physics (150)	English (100)	Physical education (100)
A	90	80	95	80	90
B	80	75	90	70	80
C	100	95	95	85	95
D	75	70	60	65	60
E	60	50	65	50	70

The aggregate of marks obtained by E is :

(1) 252.5 (2) 251.5

(3) 353.5 (4) 352.5

Answer : option 4

Q.27

What is the difference between aggregate marks obtained by A and C‘?

(1) 40.5 (2) 41.5

(3) 42.5 (4) 43.5

Answer : option 3

Q.28

In which subject. the students have obtained lowest average (°o) percentage of marks‘?

(1) Chemistry (2) Physics

(3) English (4) Physical Education

Answer : option 3

Q. 29

The aggregate percentage of marks obtained by C are :

(1) 92.20% (2) 94.17%

(3) 95.21% (4) 91.17%

Answer : option 2

Q.30

What is the average percentage of marks obtained by the students in Chemistry?

(1) 7400 (2) 7900

(3) 80% (4) 81%

Answer : option 1

Q.31

Which of the following is a programming language?

(1) Deep learning (2) Machine learning

(3) Artificial Intelligence (4) Python

Answer : option 4

Q.32

Match List I with List II.

List I	List II
(a) WWW	(i) Volatile memory
(b) JAVA	(ii) Non-volatile memory
(c) RAM	(iii) World Wide Web
(d) ROM	(iv) Programming language

Choose the correct option from the following :

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(i). (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iii)

Answer : option 3

Q. 33

Which description is appropriate among the following for ‘E-Governance “

(1) To engage. enable and empower the citizens

(2) To provide fair and unbiased services to the citizens

(3) To provide technology driven governance

(4) To ensure peoples faith in E-Commerce applications

Answer : option 1

Q.34 Which of the following is a search engine?

( 1) Internet

( 2) Bing

( 3) Skype

(4) Acrobat Reader

Answer : option 2

Q. 35

Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) :

The internet is a collection of interconnected computer networks. linked by transmission medium such as copper wires. fibre-optic cables. wireless connections etc.

Reasons (R) : World Wide Web is a collection of interconnected documents. In the right of the above two statements. choose the correct answer :

(‘1) Both (A) and (R) are true. and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 2

Q.36

Identify the Sustainable Development Goals from the list given below :

(i) Zero Hunger

(ii) Quality Education

(iii) Universal Primary Education

(iv) Clean Water and Sanitation

(v) Green Agriculture

(vi) Climate Action

Select correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii). (iii). (iv) and (v)

(3) (iii). (iv). (v) and (i) (4) (i). (ii). (iv) and (vi)

Answer : option 4

Q.37 Match the following two sets. Set I lists the names of states. while Set II indicates state specific missions.

Set -I
(a) Andhra Pradesh	(i) Mukhya Mantri Jal swavalamban abhiyan
(b) Gujarat	(ii) jalyukt shivar abhiyan
(c) Maharashtra	(iii) neeti samrakshana udyamam
(d) Rajasthan	(iv) sujalam sufalam jai abhiyan

Select correct answer from the option given below :

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (C)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv). (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)

(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv).(c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

Answer : option 4

Q. 38

Average noise levels in heavy traffic zones in major cities in India are generally in which of the following ranges of noise levels‘?

(1) 31-40 dBA (2) 41-50 dBA

(3) 70-95 dBA (4) 110-120 dBA

Answer : option 3

Q.39

The Montreal Protocol refers to

(1) Cooperation among UN member countries to combat climate change

(2) Phasing out the consumption and production of ozone depleting substances

(3) Ensuring environmental sustainability

(4) Safeguarding societal quality of life Worldwide

Answer : option 2

Q.40

In which category Cochin International Airport has been conferred. the UN‘s Champion of the Earth Award?

(1) Policy Leadership (2) Entrepreneurial Vision

(3) Science and Innovation (4) Inspiration and Action

Answer : option 2

Q.41 Which of the following modes of admission was prevalent in Nalanda University in ancient times?

(1) Entrance Examination

(2) Interview

(3) Good Academic Credentials

(4) Peer Discussion

Answer : option 1

Q.42

What are the current challenges in the field of higher education in India‘?

Expansion

(i) Equity

(ii) Funds

(iii) Examination Reforms

(iv) Excellence

(v) Entrance Examinations

Select correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (i). (ii) and (vi) (2) (ii). (iii) and (iv)

(3) (iii). (iv) and (vi) (4) (i). (ii) and (v)

Answer : option 4

Q.43 Which of the following emphasized that education needs to be managed in an atmosphere of utmost intellectual rigour. seriousness of purpose and of freedom essential for innovation and creativity?

(1) National Policy on Education—1968

(2) National Policy on Education—1986

( 3) NITI Aayog-Three Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20)

(4) Draft National Education Policy—20l9

Answer : option 2

Q.44

From the following. identify the organization that provides a common platform to all

universities including institutions of national importance :

(1) University Grants Commission

(2) Association of Indian Universities

(3) Distance Education Council

(4) Indian Institute of Advanced Study

Answer : option 2

Q.45

Creation of World-Class Universities requires :

(i) Autonomous governance

(ii) Focused funding

(m) Control over evaluation mechanism

(iv) Independent outcomes

iv) Appointment of staff by the State Machinery

Select correct answer from the option given below :

(1) (i). (ii) and (v) (2) (ii). (iii) and (v)

(3) (iii).(iv)and(v) (4) (i) ,(ii) and (iv)

Answer : option 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 46-50.

Intra-industry trade arises in order to take advantage of important economies of scale in

production. That is. international competition forces each firm or plant in industrial

countries to produce only one. or at most a few. varieties and styles of the same product

rather than many different varieties and styles. This is crucial in keeping unit costs low.

With few varieties and styles. more specialized and faster machinery can be developed for a continuous operation and a longer production run. The nation then imports other varieties and styles from other nations. Intra-industry trade benefits consumers because of the Wider range of choices. i.e.. the greater variety of differentiated products. available at the lower prices made possible by economies of scale in production. Because of this. large welfare gains arise from the ability of consumers to greatly increase the variety of goods that they can purchase through trade. The importance of intra-industry trade became apparent when tariffs and other obstructions to the flow of trade among members of the European Union. Of common market were removed in 1958. It was found that volume of trade surged but most of the increase involved the exchange of differentiated products within each broad industrial classification.

Q.46

The impact of international competition on intraindustry trade can be seen in

(1) the availability of Wide varieties of products

(2) the limited varieties of the same product

(3) adverse effect on industrial production

(4) restrictive advantages of production

Answer : option 2

Q.47

Mass production of a few Varieties of products will result in

(1) low cost of unit

(2) advantage to industrial economies of scale

(3) benefits to the customers of important economies

(4) increased cost of production

Answer : option 1

Q.48

Development and use of specialized machinery will lead to

(1) more varieties of products (2) decreased consumer welfare

(3) import of varieties of product (4) hindered intra-industry trade

Answer : option 3

Q. 49

Lower product price means

( 1) continued production run

(2) absence of choice

( 3) increase in trade information exchange

(4) increased consumer purchasing power

Answer : 4

Q.50 what was the consequence of removal of barriers to the flow of trade in European Union?

( 1) Sluggish intra-industry trade

(2) Flow of uniform products

(3) Spurt in trade volume among member states

(4) Emphasis on differentiated products

Answer : option 3

UGC NET Paper1 2nd Dec 2019 Morning Shift

Mouni — Sun, 30 Aug 2020 11:46:22 +0000

Q.1

Which of the following is the key teaching behavior to make a teacher effective?

(1) Teachers’ comments made for the purpose of organizing upcoming teaching process

(2) Use of content or process questions by teacher

(3) Engagement of students in the learning process

(4) Using student’s ideas and contributions

Answer : option 3

Q.2

The basic requirements for organizing teaching at reflective level deal with

(1) Systematic and sequential presentation of facts and information by the teacher

(2) Helping explore and explain problems and their solutions by students

(3) Translating and interpreting the facts by the students

(4) Giving concrete facts and action sequences by the teacher

Answer : option 2

Q.3

Identify the factors affecting teaching related to positive learning environment in an institution:

(i) The extent to which teachers make clear presentation

(ii) The scope for sharing and open discussions within the classroom and the institution as such

(iii) Teacher’s mastery of the content as reflected in answering students’ questions

(iv) Frequent use of positive reinforces either in the institution or classroom

(v) Availability of teacher and his/her guidance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iv) and (v)

(4) (ii) and (iv)

Answer : option 4

Q.4 In the following list. which belong to the category of learner-centered approaches?

(i) SWAYAM

(ii) Computer-aided instruction

(iii) MOOCS

(iv) Quizzes

(v) Buzz-sessions

Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (ii) and (iv)

(4) (iii) and (v)

Answer : option 1

Q.5

In the following two sets. set I mentions the evaluation system while set II gives their descriptive features. Match the two sets

set I set II

(Evaluation system) (Descriptive features)

(a) Formative evaluation (i) Comparing the students’ performance with that of others

(b) Summative evaluation (ii) Indicating standards of mastery

(d) Criterion-referenced testing (iv) Identifying scope for improvement

(v) Judging learning standards

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(iv). (b)-(v). (c)-(i). (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(i). (b)-(iii), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(v). (d)-(iv)

Answer : option 1

Q.6

Which of the following sequences correctly reflects scientific investigation?

(1) Conceptualization. theorizing. deduced consequences. observation and testing

(2) Testing, observation, conceptualizing. theorizing and deduced consequences

(3) Theorizing. deducing consequences. testing. observing and conceptualizing

(4) Observation. conceptualization. theorizing. deduced consequences and method to verify them

Answer : option 4

Q.7

In a research problem ‘studying the effect of Teaching Methods on the Scholastic

Achievement of boys and girls in terms of their socio-economic background’. which can be

designated as independent variable?

(1) Scholastic achievement (2) Teaching methods

(3) Gender (4) Socio-economic background

Answer : option 2

Q.8

When results obtained in a research study can be extended to a group larger than the sample (outside the context of the study) it is called

(1) Internal validity (2) Functional relationship

(3) External validity (4) Hypothetical construct

Answer : option 3

Q.9

In a thesis “Format and styles of referencing’ have been inappropriately followed. this is an example of

(1) Technical lapse on the part of researcher

(2) Unethical practice of the researcher

(3) Inability of the researcher to write a thesis

(4) Lack of commitment on the part of researcher to write a thesis

Answer : option 1

Q.10

A university department plans to undertake a study wherein attitudes, values and biases of teachers and students are to be probed with an eye on disclosing their patterns of adjustment. Which types of research methods will be considered appropriate in this context?

(i) Experimental method

(ii) Case study method

(iii) Descriptive method

(iv) Ethnographic method

(v) Historical method

Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (v) (4) (ii) and (iv)

Answer : option 4

Q.11

Dynamics of good classroom communication involves :

(a) Indifference

(b) Motivation

(d) Exclusivity

(e) Participation

(f) Gendered views

Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (d)

(3) (b). (c) and (e) (4) (c). (e) and (f)

Answer : option 3

Q .12

Instructional communication in the distance education mode is

(1) unstructured (2) self-regulatory

(3) informal (4) structured and interactive

Answer : option 4

Q.13 A teacher tells his students — “When you learn this. you will be able to carry out your project’. What does this communication suggest?

(1) Continued interest (2) Ambiguous advice

(3) Potential threat (4) Positive reinforcement

Answer : option 4

Q.14

The principles of effective writing useful for both students and teachers are

(a) Stress on hyperboles

(b) Liberal use of adjectives

(d) Conciseness

(e) Correctness

(f) Use of complex sentences

Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (d)

(3) (c). (d) and (e) (4) (d). (e) and (f)

Answer : option 3

Q.15

Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Communication does not include all human behavior for exchange of

information

Reasons (R): Communication involves the use of all five senses

Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 4

Q.16

Two numbers are in the ratio 3:7. If 8 is added to both the numbers. their ratio becomes 5:9.The numbers are

(1) 12,28 (2) 6,14

(3) 15. 35 (4) 24,56

Answer : option 1

Q .17

The number X in the following series:

3, 8, 18, 38, X, … is

(1) 78 (2) 80

(3) 76 (4) 74

Answer : option 1

Q.18

If ‘SOLUTION is ‘R5KTSH5M then ‘CROME’ will be written as

(1) BQ5HL (2) B5QLH

(3) BQ5LD (4) BS5LH

Answer : option 3

Q.19

If ‘a’ is inversely proportional to ‘b’ and ‘b’ is inversely proportional to ‘c’. then

(1) ‘a’ is inversely proportional to ‘c’ (2) ‘a’ is directly proportional to ‘c’

(3) ‘a’ is constant (4) ‘a’ is directly proportional to ‘bc’

Answer : option 2

Q.20

A sum of Rs. 2.000 yields Rs. 180 with simple interest in nine (9) months. The annual rate of interest is

(1) 9% (2) 10%

(3) 11% (4) 12%

Answer : option 4

Q.21

A fallacy in which an opponent’s position is depicted as being more extreme or unreasonable

than is justified by what was actually asserted is called

1) Argumentum ad Baculum (2) The Red Herring

(3) Argumentum ad Hominem (4) Straw Man

Answer : option 4

Q.22

The distinction between Savikalpaka (determinate) and Nirvikalpaka (indeterminate) is made with respect to which of the following pramanas?

(1) Anumana (inference) (2) Pratyaksa (perception)

(3) Arthapatti (postulation) (4) Upamdana

(comparison)

Answer : option 2

Q .23

The term “Paksa’ according to classical Indian school of logic refers to which of the following

terms in the process of inference?

(1) Major term (2) Undefined term

(3) Minor term (4) Middle term

Answer : option 3

Q . 24

Which of the following refers to an attribute of every categorical proposition which is determined by whether the proposition affirms or denies class inclusion?

(1) Quality (2) Quantity

(3) Distribution (4) Comparison

Answer: option 1

Q. 25

Question Number : 25 Question Id : 615475795

The product of any three consecutive integers is divisible by 6. Therefore, 3 x 4 x 5 (=60), is divisible by 6? Which type of reasoning is embodied here?

(1) Deductive Reasoning (2) Inductive Reasoning

(3) Non-verbal Reasoning (4) Abductive Reasoning

Answer : option 1

Q . 26

Directions Q. 26-30: The following table gives the percentage (%) of people having

knowledge of different programming languages. Assuming that the total number of people having knowledge about programming language is 12.00.000. answer the questions that follow the table:

Programming Language	% of People having knowledge
C++	15%
C	25%
COBOL	12%
FORTRAN	13%
JAVA	15%
LISP	10%
PYTHON	10%

The ratio of the number of people having knowledge about C to that of knowledge about

Java is

(1) 3:5 (2) 5:3

(3) 1:1 (4) 5:2

Answer : option 2

Q. 27

How many people have knowledge about C language?

(1) 1,80,000 (2) 3,00,000

(3) 1.56,000 (4) 1.44,000

Answer : option 2

Q. 28

The total number of people having knowledge about C. Java and COBOL is

(1) 4,80,000 (2) 5,04,000

(3) 5,16,000 (4) 6,24,000

Answer : option 4

Q. 29

What is the average percentage (%) of people having knowledge of programming language —Python. LISP and Java?

(1) 1.04% (2) 11.7%

(3) 26.6% (4) 11.0%

Answer : option 2

Q.30

Difference in the number of people having knowledge of C and COBOL programming languages is

(1) 1.20,000 (2) 1,80,000

(3) 1.44,000 (4) 1.56,000

Answer : option 4

Q.31

Consider the following storage devices :

(a) Hard disc

(b) CD-ROM

Arrange these in ascending order of storage capacity and select the correct option :

(1) (b). (c). (a)

(2) (b). (a). (c)

(3) (c). (b). (a)

(4) (a). (c). (b)

Answer : option 1

Q. 32

Which of the following is a Decision Support System’ for assisting people in taking best decisions for their children’s future?

(1) E-Pathshala

(2) Saransh

(3) Shaala Sidhdhi

(4) SWAYAM PRABHA

Which of the following is a Decision Support System’ for assisting people in taking best decisions for their children’s future?

(1) E-Pathshala

(2) Saransh

(3) Shaala Sidhdhi

(4) SWAYAM PRABHA

Which of the following is a Decision Support System’ for assisting people in taking best decisions for their children’s future?

(1) E-Pathshala

(2) Saransh

(3) Shaala Sidhdhi

(4) SWAYAM PRABHA

Answer : option 2

Q.33

Which of the following is NOT suitable in the context of E-mail?

(1) It is a letter sent over a computer network

(2) It can be used to send unsolicited messages

(3) E-mail is snail-mail

(4) E-mail address includes domain name

Answer : option 3

Q. 34

Match List I with List II:

List I List II

(E-initiatives) (Descriptions)

Vidwan (i)Repository for full-text thesis,e-books and journals
Digilocker (ii)Education portal to facilitate learning
Sakshat (iii)Database of leading scientists/researchers
Shodh Ganga (iv)Platform for issuance and verification of documents and certificates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

2) (a)-(iii),(b)-(iv), (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

3) (a)-(iv),(b)-(ii), (c)-(i). (d)-(iii)

4) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

Answer :option 2

Q.35

In computer related activities. what is the full form of ‘WORM?

(1) Write On Random Memory

(2) Write On Real Memory

(3) Write Once Read Many

(4) Write Once Read Memory

Answer : option 3

Q.36

The Government of India has set up the Ministry of Jal Shakti by merging/renaming which of the following:

(1) Ministry of Water Resources and Ministry of Earth Sciences

(2) Ministry of Water Resources: Ministry of River Development and Ganga

Rejuvenation: and Ministry of Rural Development

(3) Ministry of Water Resources: Ministry of River Development and Ganga

Rejuvenation: and Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation

(4) Ministry of Water Resources

Answer : option 3

Q.37

Identify environmental issues which are local in nature:

(i) Depletion of ozone layer

(ii) Lake pollution

(iii) Soil erosion

(iv) Climate change

(v) Water logging

(vi) Solid Waste Management

Select the answer from the options given below:

(1) (ii). (iii). (v) and (vi) (2) (iii). (iv). (v) and (vi)

(3) (ii). (iii). (iv) and (v) (4) (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv)

Answer : option 1

Q.38

Which of the following UN Conferences/Summit adopted the program of Action for

Sustainable Development?

(1) Stockholm Conference (2) Rio de Janeiro Conference

(3) Johannesburg Summit (4) Ahmedabad Conference

Which of the following UN Conferences/Summit adopted the program of Action for Sustainable Development?

(1) Stockholm Conference (2) Rio de Janeiro Conference

(3) Johannesburg Summit (4) Ahmadabad Conference

answer : option 2

Q. 39

Which of the following indicates the objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?

(1) To stabilize greenhouse gases concentration in the atmosphere

(2) To prescribe limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries

(3) To lay down enforcement mechanisms

(4) To prepare guidelines for formulation of Climate Action Plan by member countries

Answer : option 1

Q.40

For encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment.

UNEP focused on the World Environment Day (2019) on which of the following themes?

(1) Conserve energy (2) Tackle climate change

(3) Beat air pollution (4) Save water

Answer : option 3

Q.41

The Ancient Indian University known as the chief center for advanced and specialized studies in Nyava or Logic was

(1) Jagaddala University (2) Mithila University

(3) Nadia University (4) Valabhi University

answer : option 2

Q.42

Which items in the following constitute the non-conventional learning programs?

i) Tea sommelier

(ii) Oriental languages

(iii) Spa management

(iv) Museology

(v) Comparative languages

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i). (ii) and (iv) (2) (i). (iii) and (v)

(3) (i). (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii). (iv) and (v)

Answer : option 3

Q.43

Which one of the following is a non-statutory body?

(1) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(2) Bar Council of India (BCI)

(3) Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)

(4) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Answer : option 4

Q.44

Which one of the following has been the basis for introduction of yoga in teacher training courses?

(1) National Policy of Education — 1968

(2) National Policy on Education — 1986

(3) Vision of Teacher Education in India : Quality and Regulatory Perspective — 2012

(4) Draft National Education Policy — 2019

Answer :option 2

Q.45

Identify the “NITI Aayog — Three Year Action Agenda Items’ related to the field of Higher Education:

(i) Autonomy for top colleges

(ii) Reform of the regulatory system

iii) Establishing a system of project and scholar-specific research grants

(iv) Promotion of research culture

(v) National Research Foundation

Select correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) (iv), (i) and (ii)

Answer :option 1

Read the passage carefully and answer questions that follow:

Political ‘representation’ nonetheless is the vehicle that enabled the re-introduction of “democracy” into the modern, practical political vernacular. The resulting liberal democracy does not directly descend from the ancient Athenian democracy. Between the eras virtually nothing existed that approached “democracy” as an actual or named political form and when it again became a focus of politics and theory. it was wedded to representation —so that what we call a democracy is, in fact, a distinctive kind of democracy, “a representative democracy” – While elections and popular pressure surely have political impact, the actions of representatives are the primary, official mechanism for translating democratic citizenship into political power. We rely on the representative process to promote political goodness in democratic society. But when one imagines the idea of representation these days, its association with ethics or goodness does not spring to mind. It is an impersonal process, after all— a mechanical method by which one entity stands for or re-presents another, politically required by the need to channel the judgements of millions of citizens into the legally authoritative hands of a small number of public representatives, or even the sentiments of thousands into the leadership of single person.

Which of the following implies the characteristic of modern political vernacular?

(1) Populist politics (2) Absence of structure

(3) Ethical discourse (4) Representativeness

Answer :option 4

Q.47

The political representation enabled the emergence of

(1) Athenian democracy (2) Liberal democracy

(3) Actual democracy (4) Theoretical democracy

Answer : option 2

Q.48

According to the passage actions of political representatives’ manifest

(1) Political will (2) Popular pressure

(3) Political power (4) Self-effacing behavior

Answer : option 3

Q. 49

According to the author. the idea of democracy is viewed as

(1) Ethical politics (2) Goodness of representation

(3) A representative process (4) Channelizing views of a few people

Answer : option 3

Q. 50

What is the perception of the author with regard to representational democracy?

(1) Legal as well as ethical

(2) Universal participation

(3) Arbitrarily authoritative

(4) Centralization of power in a few individuals

Answer :option 4

UGC NET Paper1 6th Dec 2019 Morning Shift

Mouni — Sun, 30 Aug 2020 07:07:51 +0000

Q.1 The emphasis in memory level teaching is on which of the following?

Organization of thoughts and ideas
Seeing of relationships among facts
Systematic presentations to enable quick reproduction
Critical thinking
Mastery of correct sequencing of facts
Segregating one feature from another

Choose the answer from the following options :

(1) (a). (b) and (c)

(2) (a). (c) and (e)

(3) (b). (c) and (d)

(4) (d). (e) and (f)

Answer: option : 2

Q.2 Below are given two sets in which set I specifies the four behavior modification techniques while set II indicates their exemplification. Match the two sets:Below are given two sets in which set I specifies the four behavior modification techniques while set II indicates their exemplification. Match the two sets:

Set-I	Set-II
(behavior modification techniques)	(Example)
Positive reinforcement	Withdrawal of a pleasant stimulus or application of stop the behavior
Negative reinforcement	Painful or aversive stimulus is presented to step the occurrence of behavior
Punishment	The behavior increases in frequency after the removal of the stimulus
Extinction	The behavior increases in frequency after the presentation of stimulus

Choose your answer from the following options:

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iv).(b)-(iii). (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(iii).(b)-(i) (c)-(ii) ,(d)-(iv)

Answer : option 3

Q.3 The most characteristic feature of an adolescent learner which determines his/her social and moral development is the

(1) Tendency to be away from parents

(2) Concern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards

(3) Mixing up with peers in the neighborhood

(4) Identity crisis

Answer: option 2

Q.4 Which of the following teaching method (s) is/are contribution to direct learning?

(a) Team teaching and lecturing

(b) Simulation and role playing

(d) Participation in workshop and assignments

(e) MOOCs and heuristics

(f) Interactive presentations

Choose your answer from the following options:

(1) (b). (d) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (c). (d) and (f) (4) (d). (e) and (f)

Answer: option 1

Q.5 Which of the following is an example of maximum performance test?

(1) Projective personality test (2) Interest inventory

(3) Aptitude test (4) Attitude scales

Answer : option 3

Q.6

A college teacher does research with a view to depict the reality situations relating to home conditions of students and hostels provided for. Which of the following research format will be helpful to do so?

(1) Experimental research (2) Descriptive research

(3) Participant observation based research (4) Ethnographic research

Answer : option 3

Q.7 In which of the following steps of research. the scope for creativity and imagination is utmost?

(1) Identifying the research problem and defining it

(2) Figuring out the related studies and the techniques used by other researchers

(3) Identifying variables and hypothesizing

(4) Data analysis and presentation of results

option : 3

Q.8

A research scholar while finally reporting the research results in the form of a thesis acknowledges the support of his/her supervisor in the preface. This will be treated as a

(1) Sheer formality (2) Needed formality

(3) Superfluous act (4) Part of ethicality

Answer : option 4

Q.9

In case the population of research is heterogeneous in nature which of the following sampling techniques will ensure optimum representativeness of sample units?

(1) Simple random sampling (2) Stratified random sampling

(3) Cluster sampling (4) Systematic sampling

Answer : option 2

Q.10

Which of the following statistical technique will be appropriate for data analysis when the observations are available in the form of frequencies?

(1) Parametric ‘t’ test (2) Non-parametric ‘u’ test

(3) Non-parametric ‘chi-square’ test (4) Parametric correlated ‘t’ test

Answer : option 3

Q. 11

Classroom communication is

(a) Like a computer – program

(b) Dictatorial

(d) Pragmatic

Choose the correct option from those given below

(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)

Answer : option 4

Q.12

Swapping of encoder -decoder roles in communication happens due to

(1) Cognitive disruptions (2) Semantic noise

(3) Feedback analysis (4) Weak channelization

Answer : option 3

Q. 13

Classroom Interactions are influenced largely by

(1) Students’ commitment

(2) Teacher centric environment

(3) Organizational oversight

(4) Unsolicited interventions

Answer : option 1

Q.14

When a large number of students with different performance levels are there in the class. For uniform imparting of educative interactions. a teacher should opt for a communication which is :

(1) Top-down and linear

(2) Technology – enabled

(3) Individual – centric

(4) Self – projected

Answer : option 3

Q.15 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Classroom communication is pre-decided by social and institutional demands.

Reasons (R): Positive educative actions should guide learners to acquire knowledge of social significance

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

Answer : option 1

Q.16

The length of the side of a square (5.0 cm = 5.0 cm) is increased by 1%. By what percentage (%). the area of the square increases?

(1)) 1% (2) 2%

(3) 2.5 % (4) 4%

Answer : option 2

Q.17

Identify the term ‘X’ in the following series

3, 2. 11, 14, 27, 34, 51, X

(1) 62 (2) 69

(3) 60 (4) 71

Answer : option 1

Q.18

A person buys 3 items of Rs. 1500 each and 2 items of Rs. 1800 each from a shopping mall. On the total bill a discount of 10% is given. What is the average cost of the items?

(1) 1650 (2) 1458

(3) 1658 (4) 1550

Answer : option 2

Q. 19

A 50 year old man has a son whose age is 2/5 of his age. After how many years. the ratio of the age of the man to his son will be 5/3?

(1) 10 years (2) 15 years (3) 20 years (4) 25 years

Answer : option 4

Q. 20

The smallest integer greater than 1 which is simultaneously a square and a cube of certain integers is

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 36 (4) 64

Answer : option 4

Q.21

Consider the following statements and choose the right option

(a) Middle term should be distributed in at least one premise

(b) Middle term should be present in the conclusion

(d) Both premises can be negative in a valid argument

(1) (c) and (d) (2) Only (c)

(3) Only (a) (4) (b) and (c)

Answer : option 3

Q. 22

Which of the following is true with reference to anupalabdhi as a means of knowledge?

(1) 1 do not cognize the pot on the table. therefore it is absent there

(2) 1 directly perceive the absence of pot on the table

(3) 1 infer the absence of pot on the table since 1 do not find it to be there

(4) 1 know the absence of the pot on the table because 1 know its similarity with other absences

Answer : option 1

Q.23

“If it rains. then the drought will end. The drought has ended. Therefore. it rained”. Which kind of fallacy does this commit?

(1) Deductive fallacy (2) Inductive fallacy

(3) Abductive fallacy (4) Informal fallacy

Answer : option ; 1

Q, 24

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of an argument?

(1) It is either valid or invalid (2) It is neither valid nor invalid

(3) It is either true or false (4) It is neither true nor false

Answer : option 1

Q.25

“In this hospital, some nurses don’t wear white dress. some doctors have private practice and medicines prescribed are of high cost. Therefore, treatment in this hospital is of poor quality”. What fallacy does this argument make?

(1) Fallacy of composition (2) Slippery slope

(3) Fallacy of accident (4) Fallacy of division

Answer : option 2

Q. 26 Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore ) from three different companies A. B. and C over the years 2012-2018. Based on the data in the table.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

	Amount of exports ( in cror )
Year	A	B	C
2012	40	90	70
2013	70	50	100
2014	50	70	130
2015	80	70	100
2016	110	90	70
2017	60	110	90
2018	130	150	110

Q.26 Average annual amount of exports during the given period for company B is approximately what percent (%) of the average annual amount of exports for company C?

(1) 89.64% (2) 91.21%

(3) 94.05% (4) 93.33%

Answer : option 3

Q.27

In how many of the given years. were the exports from company A more than its average annual exports over the given years?

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

Answer : option 2

Q.28

What was the difference between the average exports of three companies in 2017 and the average exports of three companies in 2012?

(1) 15.35 crores (2) 18.67 crores

(3) 25 crores (4) = 20 crores

Answer : option 4

Q.29

In which year, the absolute difference between the exports from companies A and B was the minimum?

(1) 2018 (2) 2014

(3) 2015 (4) 2016

Answer : option 3

Q.30

For which of the following pairs of years. the total exports from the three companies put together are equal?

(1) 2014 and 2017 (2) 2015 and 2017

(3) 2016 and 2017 (4) 2014 and 2015

Answer : option 4

Q. 31

Which of the following is/are major issues arising out of the growing reliance on information technology?

(a) Profitability

(b) Security threats

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only

(4) (a).(b) and (c)

Answer : option 3

Q . 32

Which of the following communication technologies employ only asynchronous communication?

(a) Video conferencing

(b) Email

(d) Instant messaging

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (d) only

(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only

Answer : option 3

Q.33

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) For the sequence of integers represented in binary as 00111, 01001. 01011. P…., the next integer P would be represented as 01101

(b) A byte is a binary number consisting of exactly 8 bits

Choose the correct option:

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : option 3

Q.34

Match List-I with List-II in the context of computer networking :

List-I	List-II
VOIP	Makes use of light pulses to transmit data
Fibre -optic cable	Use of internet to make phone calls
UTP	Most appropriate to connect computers in a small building
UTP cable	Text used by web browser to locate a web address on the internet

Choose the correct option :

(1) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

Answer : option 3

Q. 35

Select the option that includes file formats suitable for distributing sound files across the Internet.

(1) wmv. mp4, wma, mp3

(2) avi, midi. wav, mp3

(3) avl, Mov. wmv. mp3

(4) midi, wav, wma. mp3

Answer : option 4

Q.36

Biomass fuels have the potential to form a sustainable carbon-neutral energy source because they

(1) Produce carbon dioxide on combustion as much as they consume when they grow

(2) Produce less amount of carbon dioxide on combustion compared to the amount they

use during their growth

(3) Have carbon content same as fossil fuels

(4) Do not produce hazardous emissions on combustion

Answer : option 1

Q.37

Major sources of oxygen demanding waste in fresh water systems are

Agricultural run-off
Food processing
Ore mining
Sewage effluent
Landfill sites

Choose the correct option from those given below:

(a), (d) and (e)
(2) (b), (d) and (e)
(a). (b) and (d)
(a), (b). (c) and (d)

Answer : option 3

Q 38

Which of the following is a renewable natural resource?

(1) Biological diversity (2) Tin

(3) Natural gas (4) Salt

Answer : option 1

Q 39

Which among the following natural hazards has relatively slow onset?

(1) Volcanic eruptions

(2) Droughts

(3) Wild fires

(4) Land and slides

Answer : option 2

Q. 40

Under Kyoto protocol, the parties, in the second commitment period, have to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions with reference to 1990 levels by at least

(1) 10%

(2) 12%

(3) 15%

(4) 18%

Answer : option 4

Q.41

Match the following study skills with their effective learning techniques:

Study skills	Learning techniques
Elaborative interrogation	Mixing different kinds of problems
Practice testing	Explaining what a section of text or an example problem means to you
Self Explanation	Testing yourself on the material you are trying to learn
Interleaved practice	Answering why a fact is true

Choose the correct option :

(a)-(iv). (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a)-(i). (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer : option 1

Q.43

In order to meet the demands of market economy and produce competent graduates, who can compete with their counterparts in international markets. the first and foremost change that needs to be introduced in the prevailing system of Indian higher education is related to:

(1) Admission process

(2) Curriculum

(3) Educational technology

(4) Appointment of teachers

Answer :option 2

Q.44

Which among the following is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship implemented by National Skills Development Corporation?

(1) Robotics India

(2) Artificial Intelligence @ schools

(3) Make in India

(4) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna

Answer : option 4

Q. 45

In the age of four Vedas. students were admitted to the Vedic schools after performance of which ceremony. among the following :

(1) Upanayana ceremony

(2) Utsarjana ceremony

(3) Satapatha brahmana

(4) Dhanurvidya ceremony

Answer : option 1

Read the passage and answer questions from 46 to 50.

Anyone who has ever been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless. static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the commonsense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviors, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focused research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature. which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and

nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions. and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being

taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner – is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviors. Students take their cues from these effective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigor, power, involvement. excitement, and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners. who will want to respond in kind.

When does one feel the need for the value of affective aspects of teaching?

(1) When a teacher has a vocal variety

(2) When a teacher makes a dynamic presentation

(3) When a teacher’s presentation is monotonous

(4) When a teacher’s lecture is beyond expectation

Answer : option 3

Q.47

The affective nature of teaching is reflected in

(1) Deeper understanding of the classroom environment

(2) Other behaviors of the teacher

(3) The recording of classroom interaction

(4) The limited reliance on research instruments

Answer : option 1

Q. 48

Students respect a teacher who

(1) is emotional

(2) displays concern for students

(3) has a powerful voice

(4) has narcissistic attitude

Answer : option 2

Q.49

The affective signs will provide students

(1) The basis for understanding contents

(2) Exhibitional behaviors

(3) Cues to hold attention

(4) A basis which triggers further enthusiasm

Answer : option 4

Q.50

The passage focusses attention on

(1) Lifeless classroom presentation

(2) Affective factors of teaching

(3) Students as emotional learners

(4) Measuring teacher’s affective nature

Answer : option 2

ICT Mock Test

Priyanka Chatterjee — Mon, 24 Aug 2020 14:39:34 +0000

This quiz is for logged in users only.

NTA-UGC-NET 4th Dec 2019 Evening shift

Priyanka Chatterjee — Sat, 22 Aug 2020 04:29:07 +0000

This quiz is for logged in users only.

NTA-UGC-NET 24th June 2019 evening shift

Surbhi Jain — Fri, 01 May 2020 09:28:49 +0000

24^th june 2019 (evening shift)

1. When the learning outcomes of students are ensured with employment of less resources and effort on the part of a teacher and more initiative for self-learning is evident, which of the following expression will describe the teacher most appropriately?

(A) Teacher is successful

(B) Teacher is effective

(D) Teacher is practical

Answer : B

2. A hypothesis should be conceptually:

(A) convoluted, complex and generic

(B) complex, tough and general

(D) obscure, complicated and simple

Answer : C

3. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in:

(A) Concept understanding

(B) Realization of one’s misunderstanding

(D) Questioning

Answer : A

4. Mailed questionnaire, observation, interview and collective questionnaire are instances of:

(A) Secondary sources

(B) Personal sources

(D) Tertiary sources

Answer : C

5. The study of ‘why does stressful living result in heart attack’? can be classified as:

(A) Descriptive research

(B) Explanatory research

(D) Feasibility research

Answer : B

6. Listening is important for a teacher to:

(A) address the requirement of the learner.

(B) gain knowledge.

(D) evaluate the learner for the progress made.

Answer : A

7. Inclusive education implies:

(A) Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be the same.

(B) Including the disabled in the main stream

(D) Ensuring that no child is left behind in education

Answer : D

8. During research, while recording observation if an observer rates an individual based on the rating given in another aspect of the interaction, this is termed as the:

(A) Evaluation effect

(B) Error of central tendency

(D) Categorical effect

Answer : C

9. The formulation of a research problem can be compared to:

(A) Laying the foundation of a building.

(B) Building the walls of a home.

(D) Constructing the ceiling of a house.

Answer : A

10. Reflective Practice implies use of one’s:

(A) Cognition

(B) Metacognition

(D) Reinforcement of learning

Answer : B

Q. (11-15): Read the following passage and answer the questions.

A business will usually go through a clear set of stages that will make up its organisational lie cycle. These stages include introduction, early growth, continuous growth, maturity and decline. The first stage, the introduction state, is the start-up phase where a business decides what its core strengths and capabilities are and starts selling its product or service. At this early stage, the founder or founders will be a part of every aspect of the daily process of the business. The main goal at this stage is to take off to a good start and make a place in the market.

The next stage, the early growth phase, aims at increased sales and more development. The focus at this stage remains on the original product or service but the effort is to increase the market share and venture into related products or services. The main goal is to move the founder to a more managerial role so more time is spent on managing and building the business. At this stage, documents and policies need to be developed so any member of the organisation can see the business any time.

The third stage, the continuous growth stage, requires a systematic structure and more formal relationships among its participants. At this stage, the resource requirements of the business need careful handling. The focus is on the expansion of the business, keeping in mind its core strength and capability. A formal organisational structure and a clear delegation plan are important at this stage.

At the fourth stage of maturity, a business often slows down as the level of innovative energy may have become weak and the formal structures may have become obstacles. A lot of care is required to prevent decline.

11. The resource requirements of a business need careful handling at which stage?

(A) Fourth

(B) First

(D) Second

Answer : C

12. Venturing into related products and services does not mean that a business will:

(A) ignore the original product

(B) move the founder to a more managerial role

(D) ignore the related products and services

Answer : A

13. The founder of a business does not move to a more managerial role at which stage?

(A) Early growth stage

(B) Maturity stage

(D) Start up stage

Answer : D

14. The slowing down of a business can happen if:

(A) there is a decline in the market share

(B) the level of innovative energy weakens

(D) the level of investment declines

Answer : B

15. When will a business create its place in the market?

(A) At maturity

(B) At introduction

(D) At late growth

Answer : B

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of modern mass media?

(A) Capital intensive

(B) Labour intensive

(D) Developmental

Answer : A

17. Which of the following signifies non-verbal communication in an essential way?

(A) Instructions written on a question paper.

(B) Learner attending an online class.

(D) Yoga instructor teaching yoga poses to the pupils.

Answer : C

18. Which of the following is a stage of intrapersonal communication?

(A) Phatic stage

(B) Intimate stage

(D) Transcendental communication

Answer : D

19. Statements:

No Musicians are Japanese.

All Barbers are Musicians.

No Barbers are Japanese.

Identify the Middle Term in the above syllogism.

(A) Subject in the first premise and predicate in the second premise.

(B) Predicate in the first premise and subject in the second premise.

(D) Subject in both the premises.

Answer : A

20. Consider the example given below:

Devadatta is growing fat.

He does not eat food during the day.

Therefore, He must be eating food during the night, other things being equal.

Identify the logic involved in the example provided above by choosing the correct answer from options given below:

(A) Arthapatti

(B) Anupalabdi

(D) Sabda

Answer : A

21. Consider the argument provided below: “Sound is permanent because it is a product like the jar”.

Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic from the options given below:

(A) Fallacy of contradictory reason

(B) Fallacy of wrong assertion

(D) Fallacy of trivial reason

Answer : A

22. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded?

(A) 16717209

(B) 1677209

(D) 167719

Answer : B

23. Inductive argument proceeds from:

(A) Universal to Particular

(B) Particular to Universal

(D) Particular to Particular

Answer : B

24. Semantic barrier of communication is implied when the:

(A) signal is lost before reaching the receiver.

(B) message transmitted by the source is unclear.

(D) receiver does not understand the meaning of the message.

Answer : D

25. A trader mixes three varieties of refined oil costing Rs. 100, Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 per litre in the ratio 2:4:3 in terms of litre, and sells the mixture at Rs. 66 per litre. What percentage of profit does he make?

(A) 12%

(B) 10%

(D) 8%

Answer : B

26. Among the five friends, Vineet is taller than Monika, but not as tall as Ram. Jacob is taller than Dalip but shorter than Monika. Who is the tallest in their group?

(A) Ram

(B) Monika

(D) Jacob

Answer : A

27. Assertion (A): Communication presupposes a shared, symbolic environment, a social relationship even among non-participants.

Reason (R): It leads to social interaction, which in combination with other factors contributes to a sense of community.

Choose the correct option given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer : D

28. A man travelled from the village to the railway station at the rate of 20 Kmph and walked back at the rate of 5 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours, find the distance of the railway station from the village.

(A) 10 km

(B) 15 km

(D) 40 km

Answer : C

29. If 0.75 x = 0.02 y, then the value of( y – x/y + x) is :-

(A) 73/75

(B) 75/77

(D) 730/75

Answer : C

30. If the average of five numbers is (-20) and the sum of three of the numbers is 32, then what is the average of the other two numbers?

(A) (– 66)

(B) (– 33)

(D) (– 132)

Answer : A

Q. (31-35): Consider the following table that shows the production of fertilizers by a company (in 10000 tonnes) during the year 2011 to 2018. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table:

Year	2011	2012	2013	2014	2015	2016	2017	2018
production of fertilizer	35	50	70	55	75	60	85	90

31. What was the approximate percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2018 compared to that in 2011?

(A) 157%

(B) 165%

(D) 182%

Answer : A

32. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of the given years?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Answer : C

33. The average production of 2012 and 2013 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of years?

(A) 2011 and 2012

(B) 2011 and 2017

(D) 2015 and 2016

Answer : B

34. In which year, the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year was maximum?

(A) 2012

(B) 2013

(D) 2018

Answer : A

35. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2013 to 2014?

(A) 20.4%

(B) 21.4%

(D) 24.2%

Answer : B

36. Match the following:

Set-I Set-II

(a) First Generation	(i) Transistor
(b) Second Generation	(ii) VLSI microprocessor
(c) Third Generation	(iii) Vacuum tube
(d) Fourth Generation	(iv) Integrated circuit

Select the correct option from the following :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iii i iv ii

(D) I iii iv ii

Answer : B

37. A/An ________ is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into other executable code or documents.

(A) Operating system

(B) Computer Virus

(D) Anti-virus

Answer : B

38. The expansion of SANKALP is:

(A) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition of Language Programme.

(B) Skills Acquisition and Karatae Awareness for Livelihood Promotion.

(D) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition for Livelihood Promotion.

Answer : C

39. Which of the following is not a/an web browser?

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Mozilla Firefox

(D) Yahoo

Answer : D

40. Which pollutant is the major source of marine pollution?

(A) Agricultural run-off

(B) Oil spill

(D) Sewage

Answer : A

41. In Audio and Video compression, the term RGB means:

(A) Red, Grey, Blue

(B) Red, Green, Blue

(D) Red, Grey, Black

Answer : B

42. The report of which of the following Education Commissions carries the sub-title ‘Education for National Development’?

(A) Radhakrishnan Commission

(B) Mudaliar Commission

(D) Kothari Commission

Answer : D

43. One Terabyte (TB) of memory is equal to:

(A) 1024 KB

(B) 1024 × 1024 KB

(D) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 Bytes

Answer : C

44. Permafrost is defining characteristic of which biome?

(A) Taiga

(B) Tundra

(D) Desert

Answer : B

45. The target set by Indian government for generating power from wind energy by the year 2022 is:

(A) 60 GW

(B) 50 GW

(D) 15 GW

Answer : A

46. The mangroves exist in:

(A) Fresh water system

(B) Temperate areas

(D) Saline waters

Answer : D

47. In which year the modern Indian University got established?

(A) 1957

(B) 1857

(D) 1964

Answer : B

48. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of sustainable development?

(A) Use of natural resources minimally.

(B) Use of natural resources for our benefit.

(D) Preserve our natural resources for our future generation.

Answer : C

49. Chemical oxygen demand in eutrophic water is:

(A) Low

(B) High

(D) Extremely low

Answer : B

50. In which era given below, higher education in India got a set back?

(A) British Era

(B) Buddhist Era

(D) Post-Independence Era

Answer : C

NTA-UGC-NET paper 1 24th June 2019 Morning Shift

Surbhi Jain — Thu, 30 Apr 2020 12:22:04 +0000

24^th June 2019 (Morning shift)

‘All republics are grateful’ and ‘Some republics are not grateful’ cannot both be true, and they cannot both be false. This is called as:

(A) contraries

(B) contradictories

(D) super altern

Answer : B

2. Through which research method, the manipulation of an independent variable and its effect on dependent variable is examined with reference to a hypothesis under controlled conditions?

(A) Ex-post facto research

(B) Descriptive research

(D) Experimental research

Answer : D

3. Which among the following best describes the Emotional Intelligence of learners?

(a) Understand the emotion of other people and your own

(b) Express oneself very strongly

(d) Adjusting one’s emotion as per situation

(e) Being creative and open to criticism

(f) Accepting other people as they are

Choose your answer from the options given below:

(A) (a), (d) and (f)

(B) (d), (e) and (f)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer : A

4. Which of the following statements explains the concepts of inclusive teaching?

(A) Teacher facilitates the learning of the gifted students.

(B) Teacher facilitates the learning of the weak students.

(D) Teacher makes the students of different backgrounds to learn together in the same class.

Answer : D

5. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) Helps those interested in further research.

(B) Shows the vast knowledge of the researcher.

(D) Is an optional part of the report.

Answer : A

6. The research design is specifically related to which of the following features in research?

(i) Sample selection

(ii) Formulation of a plan

(iii) Deciding about the tool for data collection

(iv) Hypothesis making

(v) Choice of a field of inquiry

Select your answer from the options given below.

(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

Answer : B

7. Who developed the theory of ‘Multiple Intelligence’?

(A) Alfred Binet

(B) L. Thurstone

(D) Howard Gardner

Answer : D

8. To organize discussion method in teaching effectively, which of the following condition should be met?

(a) Topic be easy

(b) Topic be declared in advance

(d) Availability of more than one teacher

(e) Language facility of participants

Select appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) (b), (c) and (e)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (c), (d) and (e)

Answer : A

9. From the list of the effective teaching behaviours, identify those which are called key behaviours.

(i) Direct, audible and oral delivery to all students.

(ii) Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer.

(iii) Warm and nurturing relationship with learners.

(iv) Varying modes of presentation.

(v) Preventing misbehaviour with a minimum of class disruption.

(vi) Organising what is to come and summarising what has gone before.

Select your answer from the options given below:

(A) (i), (iv) and (v)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer : A

10. Which of the following is a plagiarism checking website?

(A) http://go.turnitin.com

(B) http://www.researchgate.com

(D) http://www.grammarly.com

Answer : D, A

Q. (11-15): Michelangelo is famous for having successfully interpreted the human body. His great achievement is that of the painting of David whose hands reach out as a sign of human body. His great achievement is that of the painting of David whose hands reach out as a sign of human capability and potential. It is assumed that the time he lived was ripe for exchange of knowledge, development in science and matured enough to advance the horizon of investigation in all fields. Renaissance humanism stressed on a serious rethink on the nature of art that focussed on accurate details. In painting and sculpture, artists focussed on not so casual but verifiable and minute details. Michelangelo’s paintings are no exception to it. In a study published in the journal of the Royal Society of medicine, a group of surgeons are of the opinion that the great master was “afflicted by an illness involving his joints”. They have used his portraits as evidence to argue their view. During his life, he complained of what he felt to be ‘gout’. Later he complained of his sore and stiff hands which the doctors would find to be natural for someone who was engaged in handmade art. The doctors found corroboration of those claims in portraits of the artist that show a hanging left hand with both degenerative and non-degenerative changes. They attribute the pain not just to arthritis, but to the stress of hammering and chiselling and note that though the master was seen hammering days before his death at an old age, he did not write or sign his own letters before his death. In recent times there have been attempts to diagnose famous artists with diseases that were not known during their time. This practice has raised many questions, especially on the issue of ethics in research. It is also inferred from authentic analysis that Michelangelo persisted in his work until his last days. This theory would emphasize that his artistic subject defied his physical infirmities.

Q.11. What generalisation do people subscribe to?

(A) Establishing facts by DNA tests.

(B) Inferring the essence of character from famous people’s handwriting.

(D) To retroactively diagnose famous artists and public figures of conditions that were not prevalent during their time.

Answer : D

Q.12. Renaissance painting in Europe was sceptical of:

(A) The obsessive medieval method of accuracy.

(B) The classical simplicity and lack of control.

(D) Expressionist technique.

Answer : C

Q.13. The controversy that the passage above refers to is whether:

(A) Michelangelo worked under duress.

(B) Michelangelo could contain his physical infirmity by artistic excellence.

(D) Michelangelo survived different diseases before pursing art.

Answer : B

Q.14. Michelangelo lived during a time that lets us know that:

(A) Human aspirations are limitless and open to new vistas of knowledge.

(B) Cross cultural exchange in ideas is the only way for human progress.

(D) Human beings possess language which is the only key to knowledge.

Answer : A

Q.15. What actually may be concluded from the above passage?

(A) Physical infirmities do dissuade people with capabilities from excelling.

(B) Excellence in any form triumphs over extraneous factors including physical ailments.

(D) The diseases Michelangelo faced were due to constant hammering.

Answer : B

16. If the proposition ‘House are not bricks’ is taken to be false, then which of the following propositions can be true?

(a) All house are bricks.

(b) No house is brick.

(d) Some houses are not bricks.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (a) and (d)

(D) (c) only

Answer : D

17. The dance of the honeybee conveying to other bees where nectar will be found is an example of :

(A) Mass communication

(B) Group communication

(D) Intrapersonal communication

Answer : B

18. Oar is to rowboat as foot is to:

(A) running

(B) sneaker

(D) jumping

Answer : C

19. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?

Premises:

(i) No paper is pen

(ii) Some paper is handmade

Conclusions:

(A) All paper is handmade

(B) Some handmade are pen

(D) All handmade are paper

Answer : C

20. In which of the following research studies interpretation and meaning get more attention than formulation of generalisations?

(i) Historical studies

(ii) Survey studies

(iii) Philosophical studies

(iv) Ethnographic studies

(v) Hypothetico-deductive studies

(vi) Ex-post facto studies

Choose your answer from the options given below:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer : D

21. If 152 is divided into four parts proportional to 3, 4, 5 and 7, then the smallest part is:

(A) 29

(B) 26

(D) 24

Answer : D

22. Choose the correct sequence of communication from the options given below:

(A) Information – exposure – persuasion – behavioural change

(B) Persuasion – Information – behavioural change – exposure

(D) behavioural change – Information – persuasion – exposure

Answer : C

23. For all integers y > 1, = 2y + (2y – 1) + (2y – 2) + ….+ 1.

What is the value of <3> * <2>? where × is a multiplication operator.

(A) 116 (B) 210

(D) 478

Answer : B

24. In a new budget, the price of petrol rose by 25%. By how much percent must a person reduce his consumption so that his expenditure on it does not increase?

(A) 10%

(B) 15%

(D) 25%

Answer : C

25. Which of the following is a function of mass media?

(A) To transmit culture.

(B) To formulate national policies.

(D) To stabilise the share market.

Answer : A

26. The proposition ‘No historians are non – mathematician’ is equivalent to which of the following proposition?

(A) All historians are mathematicians

(B) No historians are mathematicians

(D) Some historians are not mathematicians

Answer : A

27. A sum of money doubles at compound interest in 6 years. In how many years will it become 16 times?

(A) 16 years

(B) 24 years

(D) 96 years

Answer : B

28. Identify the reasoning in the argument: ‘Use of teaching aids in the classroom to enhance learning is important in a similar way as that of the use of ICT for production of knowledge’

(A) Hypothetical

(B) Analogical

(D) Deductive

Answer : B

29. In a classroom situation, a teacher organises group discussion to help arrive at a solution of a problem. In terms of a model of communication used, it will be called:

(A) A transactional model

(B) An interaction model

(D) A linear model

Answer : A

30. Today’s media – society equation is largely:

(1) Mystical (2) Morally bound

(3) Consumer conscious (4) Tradition centric

Answer : C

Q. (31-35): Consider the following table that shows the number (in lakhs) of different sizes of LED television sets sold by a company over the last seven years from 2012 to 2018. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table:

Sale of LED television sets (in lakhs) of different sizes (in inches)

31. What is the total sale of Television sets of size 49 – inches (in lakhs) over all the seven years?

(A) 912

(B) 896

(D) 869

Answer : D

32. What was the approximate percentage increase/decrease in the sales of 32–inch LED Television sets in 2017 compared to that in 2013?

(A) 36%

(B) 56%

(D) 64%

Answer : B

33. For which size LED Television sets is the total sales of all the seven years the maximum?

(A) 22–inch Television

(B) 24–inch Television

(D) 49–inch Television

Answer : C

34. What is the difference in the number of 40–inch Television sets sold in 2013 and 2018?

(A) 1,600,000

(B) 1,500,000

(D) 16,000,000

Answer : A

35. For which LED television set is the total sales of all the seven years the minimum?

(A) 22–inch Television

(B) 24–inch television

(D) 40–inch television

Answer : D

36. Select the true statement about an operating system (OS)?

(A) An OS controls peripheral, allocates memory and organises data into fields and records.

(B) An OS provides protection against viruses and controls peripherals.

(D) An OS controls the processor and peripherals and allows the user to connect to the internet.

Answer : C

37. Which of the following is a type of malware intentionally inserted into a software system that will setoff a malicious function when specified conditions are met?

(A) Worm

(B) Trojan

(D) Logic bomb

Answer : D

38. Which of the following statements(s) is/are true in respect of wireless technology?

P: Bluetooth is a wireless technology which can be used to connect a headset to a mobile phone.

Q: Bluetooth is a long-range wireless technology and is a low cost means of data transfer.

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) Both P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer : A

39. Assertion (A): High concentration of ozone in the troposphere is desirable.

Reasons (R): Ozone present in the atmosphere protects the living organisms on the surface of earth from the harmful ultraviolet radiation of the sun.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer : D

40. In post-independence India, which one of the following committee/commission’s report deals with all levels of education in India?

(A) Sargeant commission

(B) Hartog committee

(D) Radhakrishnan commission

Answer : C

41. The present form of inter university board that was previously established for promoting cooperation and coordination among universities is:

(A) UGC

(B) AIU

(D) ICSSR

Answer : B

42. Which one of the following instructional designs is not a part of SWAYAM launched by government of India?

(A) E–tutorial

(B) E–Content

(D) Discussion forum

Answer : C

43. Which one of the following pairs LEAST matches in respect of computers?

(A) 1 Giga Byte: (1024) × (1024) × (1024) × 8 bits

(B) CRT: Cathode Ray tube

(D) CPU: Central Processing Unit

Answer : C

44. Algal blooms in oligotrophic lakes are:

(A) very frequent

(B) frequent

(D) widespread

Answer : C

45. Which of the following are priority areas in relation to the Sustainable Development Goals?

(a) No poverty

(b) Zero hunger

(d) Peace, justice and strong institutions

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(A) (a), (b), (c)

(B) (a), (c), (d)

(D) (a), (b), (d)

Answer : D

46. Select the option that shows the storage devices in order of capacity from lowest to highest.

(A) CD–ROM, DVD–ROM, Blu–ray

(B) Blu–ray, CD–ROM, DVD–ROM

(D) DVD–ROM, CD–ROM, Blu–ray

Answer : A

47. Assertion (A): Methemoglobinemia is a condition in which blood is not able to carry and deliver enough oxygen to the body.

Reason (R): Consuming drinking water with high nitrate levels may cause methemoglobinemia.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer : A

48. The Education commission of India that first took serious note of the problem of Brain drain was:

(A) The Education Commission of India

(B) The University Education Commission

(D) The Sargeant Commission

Answer : A

49. Which of the following NOT correctly matched?

(i) Gyan Darshan – Satellite based educational T.V. channel

(ii) Gyan Vani – Educational FM radio network

(iii) MOOCs – Massive open online credits

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) only (i) and (ii)

(B) only (ii) and (iii)

(D) only (i) and (iii)

Answer : C

50. In the last few years, India has been affected by which of the following tropical cyclones?

(A) Gaja, Hudhud, Bhima

(B) Hudhud, Bhima, Ockhi

(D) Gaja, Bhima, Ockhi

Answer : C

NTA-UGC-NET paper 1 20th June 2019 Evening shift

Priyanka Chatterjee — Wed, 09 Oct 2019 17:04:54 +0000

1.Which type of evaluation focusses on the identification of deficiencies and difficulties of the learner?

(1) Summative evaluation
(2)Follow up evaluation
(3) Diagnostic evaluation
(4) Criterion-referenced evaluation

Ans: 2. Diagnostic evaluation

2.A hypothesis is
(1) A certain and established finding
(2)A part of the research question
(3) A strategy of evaluating data
(4)A tentative statement providing an explanation

Ans: (4)A tentative statement providing an explanation

3.Which of the following is the key behavior contributing to effective teaching?
(1) Summarizing what was told by a student
(2) Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer
(3) Using direct and indirect questioning
(4)Explaining concepts in a logical step by step presentation

Ans: (4)Explaining concepts in a logical step by step presentation

4.What are the elements of evaluation plan?
(a) Purpose (b) Resources
(c)Analysis (d) Authority
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (4) (a), (b) and (c)

5.Tertiary source of data is
(1) Films, hoardings and posters
(2)Government gazette, newspapers and magazines
(3) Information derived from both primary and secondary sources (4) Data collected from policy papers

Ans: (3) Information derived from both primary and secondary sources

6.Position papers are
(1) Compiling of academic articles
(2)Providing review articles
(3) Offering a synopsis of an extended research
(4)Highlighting of issues and depiction of status

Ans: (4)Highlighting of issues and depiction of status

7.From the following list identify the qualitative research characteristics and select your answer from the codes given below:
(i) Creating purpose statements and research questions
(ii) Stating the purpose and research questions in a broad way
(iii) Collecting data based on words from a small number of individuals
(iv) Collecting numeric data and statistical analysis (v) Using text analysis and interpreting larger meanings of the findings

Code:
(1) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4)(i), (iii) and (v)

ans: (1) (ii), (iii) and (v)

8.Instructions which encourage live participation and interaction through online classes are called

(1) Synchronous instructions
(2) Asynchronous instructions
(3)Traditional instructions
(4) Theoretical instructions

ans: (1) Synchronous instructions

9.Which of the following is an example of higher order of cognitive learning outcome?
(1) Learning of facts and their sequences
(2) Learning roles and action sequences
(3) Learning of concepts and abstractions
(4)Learning of awareness and valuing

ans: (3) Learning of concepts and abstractions

10.Case studies are
(1) Studies conducted in areas of genetics and microbiology
(2) In-depth examination of a subject and its related conditions
(3) A report on the existing sociopolitical condition
(4)Specialized research in the areas of health and sanitation

ans: (2) In-depth examination of a subject and its related conditions

11.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?
Premises:
(i) All cats are dogs
(ii) All dogs are cows
Conclusions:
(a) All cats are cows
(b) Some cows are cats
(c) All dogs are cats
(d) No cow is dog

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (d) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (d)

Ans: (3) (a) and (b)

12.Communication through colors can result in
(a) Aesthetic codes (b) Cultural codes
(c) Semantic codes (d) Binary codes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3)(b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (b)

ans: (4) (a) and (b)

13.In a bag, there are coins of 5 ps, 10 ps and 25 ps in the ratio of 3:2:1. If there are Rs. 60 in all, how many 5 ps coins are there?
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400

ans: (3) 300

14.If proposition some milk is curd is taken to be true then which of the following propositions can be false?
(1) No milk is curd
(2) All milk is curd
(3)Some curd is milk
(4) Some milk is not curd

ans: (1) No milk is curd

15.Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives : QPO, NML, KJI,__
(1) HGF (2) CAB (3) JKL (4) GHI

ans: (1) HGF

16.The proposition some trees are green is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(a) Many trees are green
(b)Some green things are trees
(c)Some green things are not non-trees
(d)Trees are usually green
Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)(a), (b), (c) and (d) (2)(b) and (d) (3) (a) only (4)(c) and (d)

ans: (1)(a), (b), (c) and (d)

17.In which method of arriving at knowledge the emphasis is on both proceeding from particular to general and from general to particular in a combined way?
(1)Inductive method
(2)Deductive method
(3)Scientific method
(4)Analogical method

ans: (3)Scientific method

18.Connotative communication inside the classroom is
(1) Direct
(2) Critical
(3) Implicit
(4) Explicit

ans: (3) Implicit

19.Identify the reasoning in the following arguments
A pilot without flight plans is like an artist without paints.
(1)Analogical
(2) Deductive
(3)Inductive
(4) Hypothetical

Ans: (1)Analogical

20. Assertion (A): Media entertainment does not enhance the cultural level of society
Reason (R):Most media entertainment encourages escapism, not content quality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(4)(A) is false, but (R) is true

ans: (1)Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)

21.Language of communication also constitutes
(1) The random world
(2)The social world
(3) The divine world
(4)The unsanctified world

ans: (2)The social world