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Q.1
In the two sets given below. Set I provides levels of teaching while Set II gives their focus of concern:
| Set-I | Set-II |
| (Levels of Teaching) | (Focus of concern) |
| (a) Autonomous development level | (i) Problem raising and problem solving |
| (b) Memory level | (ii) Affects and feelings |
| (c) Understanding level | (iii)Recall of facts and information |
| (d) Reflective level | (iv) Seeing of relationship among facts and their examples |
| (v) Peer Learning |
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(v)
(2) (a)-(i). (b)-(iv). (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(v). (b)-(iv). (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)
Answer: option 3
Q.2
In the context of classroom teaching .The foundation on which a warm and nurturing relationship with learners can be built is called :
(1) Probing (2) Teacher Affect
(3) Structuring (4) Feedback
Answer : option 2
Q. 3
From the list of learning outcomes indicated below. identify those which are said to be high level outcomes :
- (a)Learning of facts and rules
- (b) Showing the ability to analyse and synthesize
- (c) awareness. responding and valuing
- (d) Imitation, manipulation and precision
- (e) Articulation and naturalization
- (f) Organization and characterization
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (b). (e) and (f) (2) (a). (b) and (c)
(3) (b). (c) and (d) (4) (a). (c) and (f)
Answer : option 1
Q. 4
Which one of the following sequences correctly reflects the evolution of educational technology support in higher education?
(1) Programmed learning material, text book support, online and modular material
(2) Text book supplementation, programmed learning material, modular material and online methods
(3) Modular material, programmed learning, online and text book supplementation
(4) Online methods, modular material, text-book supplementation and programmed learning material
Answer : option 2
Q.5 Match the two sets given below in which Set I mentions levels of measurement and Set II their properties :
| Set-I | Set-II |
| (Levels of measurement) | (Properties) |
| (a) Nominal | (i) Classification. order. equal units and absolute zero |
| (b) Ordinal | (ii) Classification. order and equal units |
| (c) Interval | (iii) Classification |
| (d) Ratio | (iv) Classification and order |
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
Answer : option 4
Q.6
Identify the tests from the list given below. which are maximum performance tests in the
context of research :
(a) Personality tests
(b) Projective personality tests
(c) Achievement tests
(d) Attitude tests
(e) Intelligence tests
(f) Aptitude tests
Choose correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a). (b) and (c)
(2) (b). (c) and (e)
(3) (c). (e) and (f)
(4) (c)- (d) and (f)
Answer : option 3
Q.7
Which of the following research is cyclic in nature?
(1) Fundamental research
(2) Applied research
(I3) Action research
(4) Evaluative research
Answer : option 3
Q.8 In which of the following sampling methods employed in research. the units comprising the sample are given equal and independent chance?
(1) Stage sampling
(2) Cluster sampling
(3) Dimensional sampling
(4) Snowball sampling
Answer : option 2
Q.9
The issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of research
(a) Problem selection
(b) Hypothesis formulation
(c) Hypothesis testing
(d) Data analysis and interpretation
(e) Defining of research population
Select correct answer from the following options :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (e) (4) (c) and (e)
Q.9
The issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of research
(a) Problem selection
(b) Hypothesis formulation
(c) Hypothesis testing
(d) Data analysis and interpretation
(e) Defining of research population
Select correct answer from the following options :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (e) (4) (c) and (e)
Answer : option 2
Q. 10 In which type of qualitative research designs. individual stories to describe the lives of people are explored?
(1) Ethnography
(2) Grounded theory research
(3) Symbolic interaction
(4) Narrative research
Answer : option 4
Q.11
Mini-summaries at the end of each class is called
(1) Verbal break-up
(2) Clichéd conclusion
(3) Verbal signposting
(4) Staggered conclusion
Answer : option 3
Q.12
Micro expressions. as part of classroom communication. Are
(1) negative
(2) positive
(3) manipulative
(4) fleeting
Answer : option 4
Q.13
Which of the following are essential for good classroom communication?
(a) Over-emphasis on certain words
(b) Use of gobbledygook
(0) Proper employment of redundancy
(d) Immediacy of feedback
(e) non-verbal cues
(f) Sidelining student criticism
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (f)
(3) (c). (d) and (e) (4) (d). (e) and (f)
Answer : option 3
Q.14 Pitch of the teacher’s voice in the classroom is described as
(1) linguistic
(2) paralinguistic
(3) non – linguistic
(4) marco- linguistic
Answer : option 2
Q.15
Question Number 15 Question Id : 6154751298
Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : If a teacher wants to improve his or her abilities as an effective classroom communicator. he or she should first understand the students.
Reasons (R) : The ability to understand students and intended listening are disjointed propositions.
In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option from the following :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true
Answer : option 3
Q.16
What is the missing term in the series given below?
2. 4. 6. 12. 10. 36. 14. ?. 18. 324. ……
(1) 50 (2) 72
(3) 108 (4) 18
Answer : option 3
Q.17
Apoorav is son of Madhu. Vinod is brother of Madhus husband. How is Apoorav related to Vinod‘?
(1) Uncle
(2) Brother
(3) nephew
(4) Cousin
Answer : option 3
Q.18 In a certain code “ENGLAND” is written as “ULSNYLV”. Using the same code. “IRELAND will be Written as
(1) HQUNYLV
(2) QHUNYLV
(3) QUHNYLV
(4) HUQNYLV
Answer : option 2
Q.19
The ratio of two numbers a and b is 33 : T. After adding 9 to each number. the ratio becomes 9 : 17. The numbers a and b are :
(1) (6.14) (2) (9. 21)
(3) (5. 35) (4) (18. 42)
Answer : option 4
Q.20
The next term in the series AT, EQ , IN , OK…….. is
(1) UH
(2) UP
(3) US
(4) UU
Answer : option 1
Q.21
“Everyone is going to the party. You should go too.” This inference commits which kind of fallacy?
(1) Ad Populum (2) Equivocation
(3) Ad Verecundiam (4) Ad Ignorantiam
Answer : option 1
Q.22
All students cleared their examination” and “Few students did not clear their examination”. This is an instance of ii.
(1) Contradictories (2) Superaltar
(3) Subaltern (4) Contraries
Answer : option 1
Q.23
Product of two consecutive integers is divisible by 2. Therefore 4 X 5 (=20) is divisible by 2
This is an example of which type of Reasoning?
( 1) Abductive (2) Informal
(3) Inductive (4) Deductive
Answer :option 4
Q. 24
The distinction between laukika and alaukika is made with reference to which one of the following pramfinas ‘?
(1) Anumana (Inference)
(2) Upamana (Comparison)
(3) Pratyaksa (Perception)
(4) S’abda (Verbal testimony)
Answer : option 3
Q.25
‘Some students are sincere is an example of which preposition?
(1) Universal Affirmative (2) Universal Negation
(3) Particular Affirmative (4) Particular Negation
Answer : option 3
Q.26
The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by five students in five subjects
Maximum marks in each subject are given in the parenthesis below the subject name.
| Percentage (%) marks obtained | |||||
| Student | Maths (100) | Chemistry (150) | Physics (150) | English (100) | Physical education (100) |
| A | 90 | 80 | 95 | 80 | 90 |
| B | 80 | 75 | 90 | 70 | 80 |
| C | 100 | 95 | 95 | 85 | 95 |
| D | 75 | 70 | 60 | 65 | 60 |
| E | 60 | 50 | 65 | 50 | 70 |
The aggregate of marks obtained by E is :
(1) 252.5 (2) 251.5
(3) 353.5 (4) 352.5
Answer : option 4
Q.27
What is the difference between aggregate marks obtained by A and C‘?
(1) 40.5 (2) 41.5
(3) 42.5 (4) 43.5
Answer : option 3
Q.28
In which subject. the students have obtained lowest average (°o) percentage of marks‘?
(1) Chemistry (2) Physics
(3) English (4) Physical Education
Answer : option 3
Q. 29
The aggregate percentage of marks obtained by C are :
(1) 92.20% (2) 94.17%
(3) 95.21% (4) 91.17%
Answer : option 2
Q.30
What is the average percentage of marks obtained by the students in Chemistry?
(1) 7400 (2) 7900
(3) 80% (4) 81%
Answer : option 1
Q.31
Which of the following is a programming language?
(1) Deep learning (2) Machine learning
(3) Artificial Intelligence (4) Python
Answer : option 4
Q.32
Match List I with List II.
| List I | List II |
| (a) WWW | (i) Volatile memory |
| (b) JAVA | (ii) Non-volatile memory |
| (c) RAM | (iii) World Wide Web |
| (d) ROM | (iv) Programming language |
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(i). (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iii)
Answer : option 3
Q. 33
Which description is appropriate among the following for ‘E-Governance “
(1) To engage. enable and empower the citizens
(2) To provide fair and unbiased services to the citizens
(3) To provide technology driven governance
(4) To ensure peoples faith in E-Commerce applications
Answer : option 1
Q.34 Which of the following is a search engine?
( 1) Internet
( 2) Bing
( 3) Skype
(4) Acrobat Reader
Answer : option 2
Q. 35
Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
The internet is a collection of interconnected computer networks. linked by transmission medium such as copper wires. fibre-optic cables. wireless connections etc.
Reasons (R) : World Wide Web is a collection of interconnected documents. In the right of the above two statements. choose the correct answer :
(‘1) Both (A) and (R) are true. and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true
Answer : option 2
Q.36
Identify the Sustainable Development Goals from the list given below :
(i) Zero Hunger
(ii) Quality Education
(iii) Universal Primary Education
(iv) Clean Water and Sanitation
(v) Green Agriculture
(vi) Climate Action
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii). (iii). (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii). (iv). (v) and (i) (4) (i). (ii). (iv) and (vi)
Answer : option 4
Q.37 Match the following two sets. Set I lists the names of states. while Set II indicates state specific missions.
| Set -I | |
| (a) Andhra Pradesh | (i) Mukhya Mantri Jal swavalamban abhiyan |
| (b) Gujarat | (ii) jalyukt shivar abhiyan |
| (c) Maharashtra | (iii) neeti samrakshana udyamam |
| (d) Rajasthan | (iv) sujalam sufalam jai abhiyan |
Select correct answer from the option given below :
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (C)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv). (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv).(c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
Answer : option 4
Q. 38
Average noise levels in heavy traffic zones in major cities in India are generally in which of the following ranges of noise levels‘?
(1) 31-40 dBA (2) 41-50 dBA
(3) 70-95 dBA (4) 110-120 dBA
Answer : option 3
Q.39
The Montreal Protocol refers to
(1) Cooperation among UN member countries to combat climate change
(2) Phasing out the consumption and production of ozone depleting substances
(3) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(4) Safeguarding societal quality of life Worldwide
Answer : option 2
Q.40
In which category Cochin International Airport has been conferred. the UN‘s Champion of the Earth Award?
(1) Policy Leadership (2) Entrepreneurial Vision
(3) Science and Innovation (4) Inspiration and Action
Answer : option 2
Q.41 Which of the following modes of admission was prevalent in Nalanda University in ancient times?
(1) Entrance Examination
(2) Interview
(3) Good Academic Credentials
(4) Peer Discussion
Answer : option 1
Q.42
What are the current challenges in the field of higher education in India‘?
Expansion
(i) Equity
(ii) Funds
(iii) Examination Reforms
(iv) Excellence
(v) Entrance Examinations
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i). (ii) and (vi) (2) (ii). (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii). (iv) and (vi) (4) (i). (ii) and (v)
Answer : option 4
Q.43 Which of the following emphasized that education needs to be managed in an atmosphere of utmost intellectual rigour. seriousness of purpose and of freedom essential for innovation and creativity?
(1) National Policy on Education—1968
(2) National Policy on Education—1986
( 3) NITI Aayog-Three Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20)
(4) Draft National Education Policy—20l9
Answer : option 2
Q.44
From the following. identify the organization that provides a common platform to all
universities including institutions of national importance :
(1) University Grants Commission
(2) Association of Indian Universities
(3) Distance Education Council
(4) Indian Institute of Advanced Study
Answer : option 2
Q.45
Creation of World-Class Universities requires :
(i) Autonomous governance
(ii) Focused funding
(m) Control over evaluation mechanism
(iv) Independent outcomes
iv) Appointment of staff by the State Machinery
Select correct answer from the option given below :
(1) (i). (ii) and (v) (2) (ii). (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii).(iv)and(v) (4) (i) ,(ii) and (iv)
Answer : option 4
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 46-50.
Intra-industry trade arises in order to take advantage of important economies of scale in
production. That is. international competition forces each firm or plant in industrial
countries to produce only one. or at most a few. varieties and styles of the same product
rather than many different varieties and styles. This is crucial in keeping unit costs low.
With few varieties and styles. more specialized and faster machinery can be developed for a continuous operation and a longer production run. The nation then imports other varieties and styles from other nations. Intra-industry trade benefits consumers because of the Wider range of choices. i.e.. the greater variety of differentiated products. available at the lower prices made possible by economies of scale in production. Because of this. large welfare gains arise from the ability of consumers to greatly increase the variety of goods that they can purchase through trade. The importance of intra-industry trade became apparent when tariffs and other obstructions to the flow of trade among members of the European Union. Of common market were removed in 1958. It was found that volume of trade surged but most of the increase involved the exchange of differentiated products within each broad industrial classification.
Q.46
The impact of international competition on intraindustry trade can be seen in
(1) the availability of Wide varieties of products
(2) the limited varieties of the same product
(3) adverse effect on industrial production
(4) restrictive advantages of production
Answer : option 2
Q.47
Mass production of a few Varieties of products will result in
(1) low cost of unit
(2) advantage to industrial economies of scale
(3) benefits to the customers of important economies
(4) increased cost of production
Answer : option 1
Q.48
Development and use of specialized machinery will lead to
(1) more varieties of products (2) decreased consumer welfare
(3) import of varieties of product (4) hindered intra-industry trade
Answer : option 3
Q. 49
Lower product price means
( 1) continued production run
(2) absence of choice
( 3) increase in trade information exchange
(4) increased consumer purchasing power
Answer : 4
Q.50 what was the consequence of removal of barriers to the flow of trade in European Union?
( 1) Sluggish intra-industry trade
(2) Flow of uniform products
(3) Spurt in trade volume among member states
(4) Emphasis on differentiated products
Answer : option 3
